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-   -   Breaking hands on rubber (https://forum.officiating.com/baseball/25800-breaking-hands-rubber.html)

harmbu Tue Mar 28, 2006 02:05pm

Breaking hands on rubber
 
Can a pitcher start with his hands together in the windup position, separate them and then put them back together when he starts his motion? This is FED and there are no runners on base if this makes any difference.

Thanks for the help. I don't have my rule book or case book handy.

Huskerblue Tue Mar 28, 2006 02:20pm

If the pitcher steps on the rubber with hands together and then separates them, that constitutes the start of his delivery. If he pauses after separation, that would be an illegal pitch and a ball added to the count. Balk if runners on base. Now if the pitcher starts his motion and separates his hands and then brings them back together during the course of his delivery, I think there would be no violation.

harmbu Tue Mar 28, 2006 02:27pm

Thanks
 
That is what I was thinking. Do you have a rule number for me? Thanks again.

Huskerblue Tue Mar 28, 2006 02:33pm

I do not know what the rule citation is right off hand. I was just shooting from the hip.

SanDiegoSteve Tue Mar 28, 2006 02:34pm

6-1-2

Many pitchers adjust the baseball in their glove, then remove their pitching hand from the glove, and then bring the hands together to start their motion. This is typically permitted.

David B Thu Mar 30, 2006 11:11am

Not quite typical?
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve
6-1-2

Many pitchers adjust the baseball in their glove, then remove their pitching hand from the glove, and then bring the hands together to start their motion. This is typically permitted.

Not typical where I've umpired. In FED once he puts his hands together, any movement must be a start to pitch or its a balk. (Unless of course he steps back with his non-pivot foot first)

Thanks
David

kraine27 Thu Mar 30, 2006 11:30am

If a pitcher steps onto the pitching plate, places his pitching hand into his glove to adjust the ball, then removes his hand and puts it to his side, what advantage is gained here? Why would you call a balk?

SanDiegoSteve Thu Mar 30, 2006 11:40am

I was talking about the windup postition with no runners on base in case anybody did not read the entire original situation where the question is asked. I don't know how you people are calling a balk when the pitcher adjusts the ball and then removes his hand with no runners on base. Also, nobody that I know, here in the baseball hotbed of the USA, would ever call a ball in this situation.

David B Thu Mar 30, 2006 11:49am

Quote:

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve
I was talking about the windup postition with no runners on base in case anybody did not read the entire original situation where the question is asked. I don't know how you people are calling a balk when the pitcher adjusts the ball and then removes his hand with no runners on base. Also, nobody that I know, here in the baseball hotbed of the USA, would ever call a ball in this situation.

I didn't read too clearly, but with No runners on base, we just have a "don't do that"

If you let him do it with no runners on base, what will you do when bases are loaded and F1 goes from the windup and does the same thing.

"But Mr. Blue, I've been doing it all game and you haven't called it"

No one's saying they would call a ball in this situation, that's poor umpiring; however, if you let it happen with men on base, that's different.

So, you just tell F1, don't do that because ...

Thanks
David

LMan Thu Mar 30, 2006 12:09pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by David B
Not typical where I've umpired. In FED once he puts his hands together, any movement must be a start to pitch or its a balk. (Unless of course he steps back with his non-pivot foot first)

Thanks
David

Here we permit the 'adjustment' of the ball, as long as the pitching hand remains in the glove. Once/if the empty hand leaves the glove, its a balk.

nickrego Fri Mar 31, 2006 02:00pm

It's a balk in California.

You just have to give them restitution for catching 'them' doing something illegal.

And by the way, the definition of an Illegal Pitch is not dependant on having runners on base. Only the penalty takes runners or no runners into consideration.

Illegal is Illegal, period. Except in California, where you have to do it 3 times (3 strikes law).

BigUmp56 Fri Mar 31, 2006 03:11pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by mrniceguy
Same here, Maybe this is a sectional difference whre in California they make up new rules. :D But to me this is clearly a balk.


California-Indiana-Georgia-Timbuktoo


When a pitcher breaks his hands while in the windup with no runners it should be a "don't do that again." It's time to dust off the plate and tell F2 to see to it his pitcher understands. If he does it again, it's an illegal pitch.


Tim.

SanDiegoSteve Fri Mar 31, 2006 03:18pm

All I know is that if you go around calling ticky-tac, nuisance balks here in the city that produces more pro ballplayers than any other in the United States, you will find yourself scratched by every HS Varsity coach in town.

nickrego Fri Mar 31, 2006 04:56pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BigUmp56
It's time to dust off the plate and tell F2 to see to it his pitcher understands. If he does it again, it's an illegal pitch.
Tim.

I think this is the best way to handle it.

But once I had a catcher just yell (even though I explicitly told him to call time and go talk to his pitcher) what I told him to the pitcher instead of calling time and going out to the mound. No more help from me the rest of the game...Called them as I saw them, and explained it to him after the game.

SanDiegoSteve Fri Mar 31, 2006 06:02pm

Just for anyone who cares, I chose to join a different association this year. I wasn't even going to umpire at all, but on a whim, decided to. I am no longer a member of my old association, to whom I was loyal for 19 years. They have always carried the HS contracts since long before I ever joined them in 1986. Therefore, I am not doing high school this year.


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