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Old Mon Mar 27, 2006, 01:39pm
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2nd and 3rd, 1 out

This happened in a Dizzy Dean League game. Thought this would be a good forum to see if our ump was correct. I was not involved in the game.

Runner on 2nd and 3rd, 1 out.

Batter hits fly ball to s/s, s/s drops the ball. Runners on 2nd and 3rd run. Runner on 3rd scores, runner on 2nd gets tagged out.

Now, batter does not run out the play, he is just dragging along. S/S proceeds to throw to first for the 3rd out.

Umpire acknowledged that the runner from 3rd crossed the plate before the 3rd out but did not allow the run due to force out for the 3rd out of the inning. This makes sense to me. Is it correct?

What if the runner from 3rd scored before the second out was made via the s/s tag of the runner from 2nd? Does that change anything?

Thanks,
TChaap
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Old Mon Mar 27, 2006, 01:46pm
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Umpire was correct. See 4.09.

No run can score if the third out is the result of a force play, or made by the batter-runner before he touches first base. If either of these happen, what lead up to it doesn't matter.

(They're both there because technically the out at first isn't a force)
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Rich Ives
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Mon Mar 27, 2006, 01:52pm
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Rich, PWL

THANKS,
I knew I could count on some answers.

TChaap
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