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Thu Mar 09, 2006, 09:52am
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is it illegal if the pitcher uses this move and instead of throwing to second, he begins to run toward second base with ball in hand. I realize that he doesn't have to throw, so why couldn't he just instantaneous start running at R2 (even though his pivot is still in contact with rubber). I am not sure why I am asking this question, because it "feels" like it is legal. Just humor me.
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