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Tue Oct 25, 2005, 12:54pm
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Hello everyone.
A friend told me that it is a balk when a first-baseman holds runners with one foot in foul territory. Frankly, this was news to me. I also browsed the rule book and could not find it. Is he correct? If so, is the act of having one foot in foul territory what constitutes the balk or must the pitcher also have to throw to the base? Thank you in advance, LR 
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