OK, I am going to try and explain this the best that I can. Right handed pitcher, runner on first. Pitcher picks foot up slowly (about midpoint between knee and ankle) then turns and throws to first. No movement was made toward home. Is this a balk? One umpire told me that as soon as he lifts his non-pivot foot, a right handed pitcher has to go to the plate and cannot throw to first. Is this accurate? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

Yep,
 

Correct, it is a balk.

The movement of lifting the leg is one move, the movement to first base is a second move.

Two individual moves equal a balk. The second move is passing home plate: if there is no pitch it is determined to be the second movement.

See Evans.

BTW, it is perfectly legal to throw to first base without stepping off. To do this the pitcher would HAVE to lift the front foot. The issue is that simply raising the front foot and the next movement going to first base is one thing . . . raising the knee puts us in a different situation.

T

[Edited by Tim C on Jul 14th, 2005 at 04:24 PM]

I am trying to picture "lifting the front foot" without bending the knee. Can you give me an example? What if the as the foot is lifted the initial movement is made toward first base?

ld-

I asked a nearly identical question a month or so ago. Here's the respnoses on that thread:

http://www.officialforum.com/thread/20756

Hope this helps.

-Josh

Haven't you ever seen those Russian soldiers march on TV?

Anyone see the Nats-Brewers game last night? That was a gusty balk call on Stanton to bring in the winning run in extras!

I didn't get a chance to see it...was it really a balk and how obvious was it? I hope it was blatant to call it to end the game.

It was obviously a fake balk.

For some reason I get the feeling that you are not J. Cox.

Wife causing you problems at home today? Easy with the sarcasm...

You asked if it was "really a balk?" All I am saying is that if it wasn't a balk, then it wouldn't have been called.

If there was a balk in a MLB game, it obviously was a balk.

It'a called a slide step. The foot is raised slighly then F1 can pick off or go to the plate. It's a lost art in youth leagues.

So essentially what you're saying is that no MLB ump blows a call? Did you see Hirschbeck blow the blatant out at first in the Jays-Devil Rays game yesterday?

Since I didn't see the balk play I was asking if it was called correctly. And even if it was called correctly, was it obvious enough to justify bringing in the winning run in extras?

Clearly, nobody on this board saw the play in question with the lack of an intelligent response...

I know everyone misses plays.

But how often do you think MLB guys make bogus balk calls?

About as often as they make bogus called strike calls on a ball two feet outside - which is often. Unless in your world Michael Jordan never travelled.
Being paid by a professional organization does not make one an officiating god. It should, but it doesn't.

Balks are like pickoff throws to first. You don't call it unless you "see it" without a doubt. I have yet to see a balk called that wasn't (technically) a balk in a ML Game.

But have you seen a move that should have been a balk but wasn't called?

Well,
 

Not if Bob Davvidson is working the game.

2 feet outside? Where have you been?

When was the last time you saw a bogus balk call? It just dosen't happen.