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I know the answer to this is probably very simple, I'm just missing it somewhere. But I read rulebooks for an hour last night and just couldn't sort it out.
Play: OBR, runners don't matter, outs don't matter. BR hits a single and makes a wide turn around 1B. He collides with F3 and both go to the ground in a heap. BR returns to 1B after the play. Off. coach is screaming for "interference" (the coach's word for OBS). I had signaled OBS, but I placed the runner back on 1B, reasoning that there was no way he would have made it to 2B because the ball was almost back the infield at the time of the collision. It seems that OBR 7.06 contradicts itself. It says "...all runners shall advance to the base, without liability to be put out, to the bases they would have reached, in the umpire's judgment, if the obstruction had not occurred." In my judgment, the BR would NOT have reached second base, regardless of the OBS. But the very next sentence: "The obstructed runner shall be awarded at least one base beyond the base he had last legally touched before the obstruction." So even if, in my judgment, the runner had NO CHANCE of making it to 2B safely regardless of the OBS, I should award him 2B because he was obstructed? And if this is the case, what's to stop a runner, on a routine single, from intentionally running into F3 (and making it look like it was F3's fault) any time he is remotely close to the base so he will be awarded 2B? This just had me confused, your input please. Thanks. |
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