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Mon May 09, 2005, 01:17pm
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While I am not a baseball ump, I have been around the game most of my life. You state that the batter hits the ball with his hand and it rolls foul. I am guessing that the hand was on the bat at the time. Since he swung you can't have a hit batsman. However, since the ball rolled foul, why is it not like every other foul ball with two stikes. Count remains 2-2 and the batter faces another pitch, but has a sore hand this time?
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