Another OBR contradiction? Bouncing HBP

[DDonnelly19]

Throw out the whole "strike zone" deal. I was reading into the rule too much, and it wasn't even part of the original test question. My bad!

With that in mind, the situation becomes much more simple. I'm aware that tradition and custom say to give the batter the base, but I'm only concerned with what the rule implies. The test is directed towards 16-year old kids who will probably be working 12-year olds, so I doubt JEA or other sources will come into play, but only what appears in OBR. To put it another way, how would a "competent" protest committee rule on such a situation?

Pitch touches the ground before it touches the batter. Umpire judges that not only did the batter fail to avoid the pitch, he even leaned into the pitch. The umpire still awards him 1B -- he feels that the wording in 2.00 BALL means that the batter will always be awarded 1B on a bounced pitch. Defensive coach protests, claiming that the comment in 2.00 BALL was only meant to emphasize that when a pitch that touches the ground before the batter, the batter may be awarded 1B, but that he still needs to meet the requirements outlined in 6.08(b), that the fact that the pitch touches the ground is irrelevant.

The trainer has "A" (batter awarded 1B) as the answer to the test question, where I feel it's "B" (pitch ruled a ball). Who's right?

Thanx,
Dennis