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-   -   Miami vs. Texas (https://forum.officiating.com/baseball/19787-miami-vs-texas.html)

w_sohl Mon Apr 18, 2005 09:08am

A balk was called because F3 was moving towards the plate when a pick off throw was made at first. Is this the case in FED as well? If so, where in the rule book can I find this?

bob jenkins Mon Apr 18, 2005 10:13am

Quote:

Originally posted by w_sohl
A balk was called because F3 was moving towards the plate when a pick off throw was made at first. Is this the case in FED as well? If so, where in the rule book can I find this?
I didn't see the play, so I can't comment directly, but 6-2-4a would cover the balk as you've described it.

w_sohl Mon Apr 18, 2005 10:21am

To better describe it, the firstbasemen was moving towards the plate as if to field a potential bunt when the pitcher threw a pickoff attempt to said firstbasemen. A balk was immediately called and the announcers (I know, I know) said that this was a result of the firstbasemen moving towards the plate when the throw was made. The NFHS rule you point out just referes to the pitcher dropping the ball and it not crossing a foul line or faking a throw to first. Hope this better describes the sitch.

UmpJM Mon Apr 18, 2005 10:32am

w_sohl,

Believe it or not, it's the "faking a throw to first" part of the rule that was violated, hence the balk.

When an in-contact pitcher initiates a pick-off move to 1B, he must <b>complete</b> the throw, and the throw must be near enough to 1B (in the umpire's judgement) that a play could have been attempted in the immediate vicinity of 1B.

So, it is not so much that the F3 is "moving in", it's that the pitcher threw to him rather than to the base. If the pitcher had thrown to the base, whther the ball sailed on through, hit the runner, or even the base coach, it would not have been a balk.

Since he started a move to 1B and did not complete the throw <b>to 1B</b>, it is a balk.

JM

UMP25 Mon Apr 18, 2005 03:17pm

I don't know if I agree with this faking a throw to first rationale. I'd explain it this way: when an in-contact pitcher throws to first base, he must either throw the ball TO the base or to the first baseman who is making a play on the runner. The play itself doesn't have to be close; rather, F3 simply has to be making a play. I do remember that's how Evans once explained it, I believe possibly even in his balk video.

Aceinthehole Mon Apr 18, 2005 06:16pm

Was Dale Luker umpiring this game?

bob jenkins Tue Apr 19, 2005 07:11am

Quote:

Originally posted by w_sohl
To better describe it, the firstbasemen was moving towards the plate as if to field a potential bunt
I'm sorry, w_sohl, I completely misread the play.

See 6.2.4J for a similar play. In FED, the criteria is "close enough to legitimately make a play"



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