Balk to second

[Whowefoolin]

Please, again, someone explain why a pitcher can't balk to second?

I had a game yesterday where the pitcher wheeled around and threw to F4 who was off the base. The BU called balk. Explanation was that F4 needs to be atleast breaking towards the base.

I remembered the debates about balking towards second, but could not think of them at the time. Even if I would have known, I probably wouldn't have shown up my partner. No one put up a fuss about it. They all bought it. However, I am interested to know why we can't balk to second.

I mentioned it to the BU after the game (about not balking second). He said it was bulls**t. That I should read the rule book, and stop reading these boards. I do read the rule book, however, found that nowhere does it say that (with the exception of first).

Thanx

Max

[bob jenkins]

Originally posted by Whowefoolin
Please, again, someone explain why a pitcher can't balk to second?

I had a game yesterday where the pitcher wheeled around and threw to F4 who was off the base. The BU called balk. Explanation was that F4 needs to be atleast breaking towards the base.

I remembered the debates about balking towards second, but could not think of them at the time. Even if I would have known, I probably wouldn't have shown up my partner. No one put up a fuss about it. They all bought it. However, I am interested to know why we can't balk to second.

I mentioned it to the BU after the game (about not balking second). He said it was bulls**t. That I should read the rule book, and stop reading these boards. I do read the rule book, however, found that nowhere does it say that (with the exception of first).

Thanx

Max

Without getting into the whole "IIITBTSB" word-smithing, the play you described was not a balk. See, the pitcher could have just feinted, and not thrown the ball. So, why would throwing the ball be a balk?

Tell your partner to read NAPBL 6.4(l)

[Buster Light]

NAPBL 6.4a and 6.4l
6.4 SPECIAL BALK REGULATIONS
(a) The pitcher shall be charged with a balk if he attempts a pick-off at first base and throws to the first baseman who is either in front of or behind first base and obviously not making an attempt at retiring the runner. However, there is no violation if the pitcher throws the ball directly to first base in this situation. Also note that there is no violation if the pitcher attempts a pick-off at second or third and throws to an infielder who is in front of or behind either of those bases (i.e., this violation is only in reference to pick-offs at first base),

(l) There is no violation if a pitcher attempts a pick off at second base and seeing no fielder covering the bag, throws to the shortstop or second baseman, neither of whom is in the vicinity of the bag nor is making an actual attempt to retire
the runner.

It is possible to balk to second, for example if the pitcher fails to step toward second.

[Edited by Buster Light on Mar 5th, 2001 at 01:23 PM]

[Mike M]

Another circumstances that umpire can balk the pitcher for throwing the ball to second basemen would be if the in the umpire's judgement the pitcher was delaying the game under 8.05h.

[Edited by Mike M on Mar 5th, 2001 at 03:00 PM]

[Bfair]

Originally posted by Tim C
A pitcher that does not step directly to second base when making a pickoff attempt without stepping off would then be balking to home plate NOT 2nd base.

It IS impossible.

:-}

Please look for my humor . . .

Okay , Tee, try this one that I had happen in a FED game.

Righthanded F1 brings nonpivot back to 2nd but keeps turning and delivers on pickoff attempt to 1st. Are we qualifying this as a balk to 1st now?? I actually had this one happen to me. Weird looking and will take you by surprise as he keeps spinning.

Steve
Member
EWS

[Bfair]

I have also seen just the plain old shoulder twitch------start to turn and decide not to---causing runner to retreat. Just plain old indecisiveness causes that one.

Steve
Member
EWS