Situation; First base occupied – less than two outs - Full count on the batter

Play; Dropped third strike becomes lodged in umpires paraphernalia

Question; Is the batter out – Dropped third Strike with first base occupied with less than two out. Or, does the batter get first base for the pitch lodge in umpires paraphernalia.

Comment; I have had many answers and so far all interpretation, can anyone find an approved ruling that applies, thanks.

7.05
Each runner including the batter runner may, without liability to be put out, advance (i) One base, if the batter becomes a runner on Ball Four or Strike Three, when the pitch passes the catcher and lodges in the umpire's mask or paraphernalia. If the batter becomes a runner on a wild pitch which entitles the runners to advance one base, the batter runner shall be entitled to first base only.

7.05 (i) One base, if the batter becomes a runner on Ball Four or Strike Three, etc

The batter has NOT become a runner!

The first thing that happen was dropped third strike, the batter is out, the ball continues on to become lodge in the umpires mask or paraphernalia. The offensive should team should not be rewarded with the effective reversal of an out.

Dropped Third Strike
 

The ball becoming lodged in the umpire's paraphernalia does not change rule 6.09 (b). The batter does not become a runner on an uncaught third strike with less than two out and first base occupied. He is not entitled to first base.

I think Delaware Blue got it right: the batter was out on strike three, and what happens to the ball afterward can affect only other runners.

Seems to me the harder case might be where the batter DOES become a runner on a dropped strike three, and the ball lodges in umpire equipment. One might wonder whether awarding BR first is penalizing the defense, since probably the majority of BR's are retired on this play.

Still, it probably is the right way to go with the award: after all, the defense made the first mistake in dropping strike three. Once the ball is lodged, BR has to go somewhere (1B or the bench), and even though he struck out it doesn't seem right to nullify his opportunity to reach first. HE didn't drop the pitch.

Why wouldn't the umpire apply the same rule as if the pitch had gone out of play, which in actuality it did? With first base occupied, one out and two strikes on the batter, if the pitcher throws a mean slider that the batter swings at and misses for strike three and the pitch then short hops the catcher hitting him on a shin guard and the ball then rolls into the dugout, the ball would be dead, the batter would be out and any runners on base would move up one.

If it were two outs, everyone would get a base.

Yes, No?

Yes, but not the batter as he is out on third strike.

In the original play three things happened. The pitch was strike three, batter is out. Catcher dropped the ball, batter is out. Ball gets lodged, batter is in the dugout. G.

My bad, in the original post I forgot about R1. But it is still a one base award for everyone but the BR.

with two outs, every runner advances one base. B-R gets first.Rules 5.09 g end notes