During ground rules in a game last night a coach told my partner and I that a umpire in a previous game had called a balk on his pitcher with no one on. The umpire then added a ball to the count of the batter. I felt this should be no call but my partner agreed with the call. I thought that I had read, in this forum, that this should be a no call under OBR. I have gone through the last 45 days of topics but cannot find that thread. Can someone verify the call wether right on wrong and cite a rule or case.

Thanks.

Since a balk is an illegal move with a runner on base, or attempt to deceive a baserunner, if there is no runner, there is no balk.

I see we're talking OBR, but under FED, the pitcher must come to a complete stop from the stretch. With runners it's a balk, with no runners it's an illegal pitch.

-Jeremiah

Someone's info is incorrect here. You can't have a pitchers balk without runners. In accordance with 8.01.d though, you can have an "illegal pitch" and the result will be a ball.

8.01.d States: If the pitcher makes an illegal pitch with the bases unoccupied, it shall be called a ball unless the batter reaches first base on a hit, an error, a base on balls, a hit batter or otherwise.

My question is: Is it an illegal pitch when a pitcher balks and then delivers the pitch? It seems if a balk occurs and the pitcher does not deliver the pitch it would be nothing?

2.00 An ILLEGAL PITCH is (1) a pitch delivered to the batter when the pitcher does not have his pivot foot in contact with the pitcher's plate; (2) a quick return pitch. An illegal pitch when runners are on base is a balk.

Nothing else that would be a balk with runners on is illegal.

i'm not sure if you're talking about me, but i recently did this in a game then posted the question here...the thread title is "illegal pitch".
i called an illegal pitch with no one on base because of this OBR rule "The Windup Position. The pitcher shall stand facing the batter, his entire pivot foot on, or in front of and touching and not off the end of the pitcher's plate, and the other foot free. From this position any natural movement associated with his delivery of the ball to the batter commits him to the pitch without interruption or alteration"...." it's the last sentence of that quote that i referred to...he must finish his pitch, otherwise, it seems to be an illegal pitch.
the consensus was that while TECHNICALLY it may have been the right call, nonetheless it is much easier and more acceptable to simply ignore it, unless it repeatedly happens.

"Illegal Pitch" is a defined term in OBR -- it means one of two things.

Not everything illegal associated with a pitch is an Illegal Pitch.

Dan ,

As Bob has already pointed out, an "illegal pitch" is defined in the rule book. Either it meets that criteria or not. Just because it "seems" to be illegal, doesn't make it illegal.

It is a general consensus of opinion that calling an "illegal pitch" on a pitcher, for not having contact with the pitchers plate,(which is one of the definitions), as being "over technical" as an umpire.

So technically your reason for making the call was incorrect. Don't fall into the ole premise that "if it doesn't look right, it has to be a balk" theory.

When your are able to explain why, it is just much more professional.