I had this come up, runner on first 0-1 count. The pitcher balks (does not come to a set) and balk is called but play continues, pitch is a ball, and runner successfully steals second. The UIC claimed the pitch does not count for some odd reason and the count would still be 0-1 not 1-1, but I felt it does since the runner successfully stole the base, hence the delayed dead ball. Whose correct? Thanks

I assume OBR, balk is delayed dead, and if runner advances the balk is ignored. No pitch. If the batter hits the ball, advances to 1B and all runners move up one base, then the balk is also ignored. We can't advance a runner on a balk and call a ball on the batter, on the same pitch.

The UIC must have not ignored the balk. It looks like he called it, awarded R1 second, and called no pitch. You should have went to him and told him to ignore the balk because R1 advanced.

If I'm not mistaken, the balk is enforced because according to 8.05 penalty, the runner must at least advance 1 base AND the batter must reach by hit, walk,HBP or some other means.

I think the PU was correct here.

The umpire was correct. The balk is ignored only if the batter runner and all runners advance at least one base safely.

Why does the batter runner matter? Could somebody please cite an OBR reference?

Nevermind, correct count is 0-1

I take it back, I think the PU is right. Think about it, pitcher balks, and delivers a strike. R1 was stealing, and there is a close play at second. The BU calls him safe. Then the offensive manager will come out to argue that R1 was out. If R1 was called out, then he would be awarded second, and the strike would not count. But if R1 was called safe, then the balk would be ignored and the strike would count.

If the runners advance, the balk is "ignored" with respect to the runners (this allows them to advance more than one base), but the balk "counts" (that is, the pitch doesn't count) with respect to the batter.