Ok, I'm the PU, there's a runner on first (R1). The pitcher (F1) starts his motion and R1 takes off for 2nd base. The pitcher (F1) pivot-turns in his motion and plants toward AND throws to 2nd base for F6 to tag R1 out. Of course R's team coach comes out complaining; BU, my partner, is adamant it is NOT a balk, because he "just looked it up." R coach says he must step off first to go to 2nd (which is what I thought, too).

And, to me, that's an unoccupied base the F1 threw at, and I've always thought THAT was a balk. Any help, y'all?

**the bad thing is, to start the 2nd game, team R's coach asked me how I was "gonna call the move to 2nd," or move to 1st--he thinking that he's gotta throw to home or 1st. :)

Thinking might get you in trouble
 

When in doubt do like your BU - look it up.

As long as the runner has committed to going to 2nd (OBR) rules then F1 can throw to second.

FED rules are a little different on this play as he can throw to 2nd as long as R1 is advancing or has feinted an advance.

thanks
David

Say this 10 times "It is impossible to balk to second" IIITBTS.

Now listen to your partner more and read more yourself. Your coming along nicely.

Oh and tell the coach when his oitcher REALLY Balks you will call it. You could also suggest that he read the rules too.

Hey, thanks for your response. I just wanna learn!! :)

If the interpretation serves me right, F1 can throw to 2nd to PO R1 who is running to second IF AND ONLY IF his initial motion does not carry him toward the plate.

I. E., F1 lifts leg straight up as R1 is going. As long as said motion goes toward second and not home, F1 is legal in the PO to 2nd.

F1 needn't step off before throwing to any base.

Quote:

and, to me, that's an unoccupied base the F1 threw at, and I've always thought THAT was a balk. Any help, y'all?

It is an unoccupied base, but it's not a balk if you throw to an unoccupied base for the purpose of making a play.

[/B][/QUOTE]

What about if a pitcher attempts a pickoff at second base but steps directly towards third base and throws to second.

OBR 8.05
If there is a runner, or runners, it is a balk when_ (c) The pitcher, while touching his plate, fails to step directly toward a base before throwing to that base; Requires the pitcher, while touching his plate, to step directly toward a base before throwing to that base.

Sounds like a balk to second to me?

Picky picky picky
 

Well, actually its not a balk to second, that's a balk to third because he stepped to third and there was no runner.

I've changed my statement in my training to be

Its' very very very hard if not impossible to balk to second base. It keeps guys from calling unnecessary balks to second.

Thnaks
David

If the pitcher's feint to third is in response to the runner heading toward third, this is not a problem or a balk.

If the runner merely had a good lead from second, and the pitcher feints to the unoccupied base, then balk him.

I would consider, with the runner moving, the feint to third and the throw to second to be a single play on the runner.
mick

I had this situation earlier in the year. R2 with a good lead, F6 comes in behind him and the pitcher spins and throws toward second for the pickoff but steps directly to third base.

I balked him because he didn't step towards the base he threw to.

Ya, now that you all explain it--makes perfect sense :)
thanks..I'll be ready now. (That coach even said he'd have this game under protest, if they lost; JC coach from a southern Virginia school who was coaching his sons Legion team for the summer.) LoL. ty