Ok - runners at 1st and 2nd. Runner at 2nd has a big lead - pitcher throws a pitch out to catcher to get guy runnng from 2nd to 3rd out. Catcher throws to 3rd - hits the batters bat - ball goes into dugout. Umpire waits... runner that was on 2nd now at 3rd awarded home and runner on 1st got to 2nd awarded 3rd and then home also? Is this really how it should have gone? Everyone was a bit confused buy the umps call.

Thanks

If you are asking about the bases awarded on a ball that is thrown into dead ball territory two bases from the TOP on first play by an infielder. If you are asking about interference apparantly in the umpire's judgement there was none.

[Edited by Jake80 on Jun 24th, 2004 at 04:54 PM]

Assuming there is no interference on the batter (it seems you were confused by the base awards), I think that R2 should score and R1 should be awarded 3rd base.

2 bases from the time of the pitch on the first play.

Thanks for the help
 

Thanks - I figured it should be 2 bases but the confusing part was R1 getting 3. He should have stayed at 3rd base.

Thanks