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bob jenkins Sat Jun 19, 2004 10:33am

Quote:

Originally posted by DG
I don't get your drift. If the 3B and SS are in a line on a ground ball between 3rd and short, and the ball goes between the 3B legs and contacts the runner from 2B directly in front of the SS, there is no interference, unless the contact was intentional. If not intentional, then no interference. Only one player is protected, in this case 3B man. He made the error by not fielding cleanly. We are not going to penalize the offense.
Let's be sure we have the same play. R2. Grounder to the left side. The ball goes through F5's legs and hits R2 directly behnid F5. If not for the ball hitting R2, F6 would likely have fielded the ball and thrown BR out at first. Is that it?

If so, then, yes, we are going to penalize the offense for getting hit with the batted ball. See 7.09(m), especially the phrase "no other infielder had a chance to make a play on the ball."

The rule is that the runner is out when hit by a batted ball.

Exception: 1) The ball goes through (or immediately by) a fielder; 2) The ball is deflected.

Exception to exception 1: Another fielder could make a play.



wobster Sat Jun 19, 2004 04:37pm

The play was this -

R1, B2 0 outs.

B2 hits to F4 who lets it between his legs, bouncing off R1's foot before going to the outfield. No other fielder could have fielded ball.

DG Sat Jun 19, 2004 10:46pm

Quote:

Originally posted by bob jenkins
Quote:

Originally posted by DG
I don't get your drift. If the 3B and SS are in a line on a ground ball between 3rd and short, and the ball goes between the 3B legs and contacts the runner from 2B directly in front of the SS, there is no interference, unless the contact was intentional. If not intentional, then no interference. Only one player is protected, in this case 3B man. He made the error by not fielding cleanly. We are not going to penalize the offense.
Let's be sure we have the same play. R2. Grounder to the left side. The ball goes through F5's legs and hits R2 directly behnid F5. If not for the ball hitting R2, F6 would likely have fielded the ball and thrown BR out at first. Is that it?

If so, then, yes, we are going to penalize the offense for getting hit with the batted ball. See 7.09(m), especially the phrase "no other infielder had a chance to make a play on the ball."

The rule is that the runner is out when hit by a batted ball.

Exception: 1) The ball goes through (or immediately by) a fielder; 2) The ball is deflected.

Exception to exception 1: Another fielder could make a play.



I have never seen this happen, but 7.09(m) seems clear on it. Thanks.

akalsey Sat Jun 19, 2004 10:54pm

Hmm. That's two rules that cover the same thing with slightly different language. I hate that. :)

I knew I had seen the "no other infielder has a play on the ball part" but when I looked up the rule and saw 7.08(f) I thought I was just imagining that part of the rule.


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