OBR

R2, R3, 1 out. Ground ball to F6, R2 runs OVER F6 going to third. F6 recovers and throws to 1st base for an out on the BR. R3 scores before BR is thrown out at first. What is the ruling?

Once you determined that the interference occured, what happened afterwards was immaterial. Based upon your description, R2 would be out for interference and either B1 or R3 would be out also, by your determination of where the next play would have been.

Umpire discretion in OBR on wether the interference was accidental or deliberate is necessary, with a resultant one or two outs. However, from your description, I would have called interference, dead ball, and eith B1 or R3 out. Innning Over.

<i> Originally posted by jumpmaster

R2, R3, 1 out. Ground ball to F6, R2 runs OVER F6 going to third. F6 recovers and throws to 1st base for an out on the BR. R3 scores before BR is thrown out at first. What is the ruling? </i>

One of our most Important jobs as Blues is to KNOW when the ball is either Delayed Dead (wait until playing action is over before enforcing) or IMMEDIATELY Dead (Enforce right away).

Unfortunately the OBR rule-book does not have a nice neat table to reference. One has to make their own list. The FED rule-book has a Table of when the Ball is Immediate vs. delayed dead.

99% of the Interference calls the Ball is IMMEDIATELY Dead.

Here's the Call in your play.

As soon as you judge interference the call is

1. TIME
2. That's Interference
3. Somebody is out namely R2

In OBR if you felt that R2 ran into F6 Willfully and Deliberately to prevent a DP you could call 2 outs (This would be a rarity in an OBR Game)

In FED, the terminology Willfully / Deliberately is absent, so if you judged that F6 could have tagged R2 and threw to F3 to get B1, record 2 on this play.

Normally with R2/R3 is not a DP situation, so under both sets of rules, the call would most likely be 2 outs,
R3 (if he/she scored) back to third, R2 is out on the interference and B1 to first.

Pete Booth

My call was this...

Signal delayed dead ball. observe throw to first, BR out. Call dead ball, call R2 out for interference. Run that scored counts because the 3rd out was after the run scored.

I think that an arguement could be made that there was no interference b/c F6 was successful in putting out BR.

Peter - why dead ball immediately?

<i> Originally posted by jumpmaster

My call was this...

Signal delayed dead ball. observe throw to first, BR out. Call dead ball, call R2 out for interference. Run that scored counts because the 3rd out was after the run scored.

I think that an arguement could be made that there was no interference b/c F6 was successful in putting out BR.

Peter - why dead ball immediately? </i>


The ball is dead immediately because it's the rule.

<b> At the end of OBR 7.09
PENALTY FOR INTERFERENCE: The runner is out and the ball is DEAD. </b>

As mentioned you need to know when the ball is delayed dead vs. immediate Dead. Interference is almost always an immediate dead ball.

When interference occurs we do not wait to see what happens (Exception B1 interferes with F2, but F2 makes the play anyway), We call TIME, That's Interference, and Somebody is Out.

Pete Booth

Interference
 

Peter,

Interference is not a delayed dead ball call, as other posts have replied.....Interference is immediate dead ball, somebody is out and any runners on base return to the last base they legally occupied at the time of the pitch.

Michael

Well,
I guess I kicked this one harder than I thought.

So the proper ruling would be...
time - R2 out. R3 return to 3rd. BR back in the box. Would the pitch count as a strike?

I think you have R2 out, R3 return to 3rd, BR at 1B, new batter to get the game going again, unless you deem the contact to be willful and deliberate to break up a double play (hard to picture in this situation), in which case B1 is also out and inning over. What double play would the runner be willfully breaking up? He can not run into the fielder and make the fielder make a play on him or the BR, either of which would be one out. The only DP possibility I see is tag the runner and throw to 1B, and R2 can prevent this. I don't see two outs, based on description.

You're confusing this with the penalty for batter's interference, where you do wait to see if the runner is thrown out on the steal attempt.

Kill the ball on the contact. Point laterally and call, "That's interference! TIME!!" In this situation, R2 would be out, R3 back to third, place R1 on first base. It is unlikely that this would be ruled willful and deliberate attempt to break up 2, so there's only one out on the play.

Even if that was the correct rule, the run still wouldn't count because BR made the third out before reaching first.