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-   -   Clarification: LLB 7.05 (https://forum.officiating.com/baseball/13951-clarification-llb-7-05-a.html)

UmpireBob Wed Jun 02, 2004 11:49pm

As I was reading 7.05, I came to the conclusion that I needed to ask others with experience on this issue. Specifically, I was looking at LLB 7.05(h), which states:

"Each runner including the batter-runner may, without liability of being put out, advance (h) one base, if a ball, pitched to the batter, or thrown by the pitcher from the position on the pitcher's plate to a base to catch a runner goes into a stand or a bench, or over or through a field fence or backstop. The ball is dead;"

If I'm reading this correctly, a batter who had just come up, would be allowed to advance to first base if a pitched ball were to be thrown over the backstop, or if the pitcher were to throw the ball out of play in the attempt to pick off a runner at third. In either case, the batter has done nothing to warrant being granted first base. Note (1) under 7.05 in the LLB rulebook notes this as well.

Am I interpreting this rule correctly???

DG Thu Jun 03, 2004 12:07am

Quote:

Originally posted by UmpireBob
As I was reading 7.05, I came to the conclusion that I needed to ask others with experience on this issue. Specifically, I was looking at LLB 7.05(h), which states:

"Each runner including the batter-runner may, without liability of being put out, advance (h) one base, if a ball, pitched to the batter, or thrown by the pitcher from the position on the pitcher's plate to a base to catch a runner goes into a stand or a bench, or over or through a field fence or backstop. The ball is dead;"

If I'm reading this correctly, a batter who had just come up, would be allowed to advance to first base if a pitched ball were to be thrown over the backstop, or if the pitcher were to throw the ball out of play in the attempt to pick off a runner at third. In either case, the batter has done nothing to warrant being granted first base. Note (1) under 7.05 in the LLB rulebook notes this as well.

Am I interpreting this rule correctly???

Negative. 7.05 starts with "Each runner including the batter-runner". The batter is not a "batter-runner" in this situtation. He needs to hit the ball or become a batter-runner for some other reason (ie walk). Otherwise, he is just a batter. Think about it! How many times have you seen a batter awarded 1B for anything other than a hit by pitch, or walk? How many batters have you seen awarded 1B because of a pickoff throw that went out of play?

UmpireBob Thu Jun 03, 2004 01:04am

DG,

Thanks for that! The BR is where I was getting hung up on this one. Take this a step further then with this situation: R3, no out, and batter becomes BR with ball four, which sails over the backstop, or is wild enough to go over the fence on either side of the backstop. Batter, now BR due to the walk, gets first base. R3 is allowed to advance (I cringe when I hear people say "awarded") to home due to the wild pitch, even though he's not forced to go home, right??

Or, same sitch, only with R1. Pitcher attempts a pick-off of first, and ball sails into the dugout (dead ball area). Batter stays put, R1 and R3 are allowed to advance one base, and the run scores, right?

LDUB Thu Jun 03, 2004 01:24am

Quote:

Originally posted by UmpireBob
Take this a step further then with this situation: R3, no out, and batter becomes BR with ball four, which sails over the backstop, or is wild enough to go over the fence on either side of the backstop. Batter, now BR due to the walk, gets first base. R3 is allowed to advance (I cringe when I hear people say "awarded") to home due to the wild pitch, even though he's not forced to go home, right??
Yes. It is a one base award from the time of pitch. R3 gets home, BR gets first.

Quote:

Originally posted by UmpireBob
Or, same sitch, only with R1. Pitcher attempts a pick-off of first, and ball sails into the dugout (dead ball area). Batter stays put, R1 and R3 are allowed to advance one base, and the run scores, right?
This one depends. First off, batter stays put. Lets say we have a left handed pitcher. He throws to F3 WITHOUT REMOVING HIS PIVOT FOOT FROM THE RUBBER. In this situation, if the ball goes out of play, it is a one base award. Here is where it changes. Now lets say we have a right handed pitcher. When most righties make their pickoff move, they first step off the rubber then turn and throw. Lets say this is what happnes. F1 STEPS OFF THE RUBBER and throws it out of play. This is a two base award. So R3 would score, R1 gets third.

Just remember. On the rubber one base, if he is off, then it's two bases.

UmpireBob Thu Jun 03, 2004 01:36am

LDUB,

I hadn't caught that slight difference! Thanks for bringing that to my attention! I knew that (g) had stipulated a thrown ball, but I always thought of it in terms of an infielder making a play off of a batted ball. I never thought of it in terms of a pitcher whose foot was not on the rubber. Good to know!


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