Interference?
 

OBR
R1.
Batter hits ground ball to F4 while runner takes off.
F4 hesitates to make the play because he is fearful of making contact with the runner.
He then bobbles the batted ball, later claiming that R 1 distracted him.
Defense is looking for an interference call.
I state that a runner has to do something other than just legally running the bases for interference.
My call stands.
That happened a few years ago and many have since told me —including a recent debate on another umpires forum—that I was wrong.
Was I?

F4 should know R1 is going to be running by. Just running by is nothing.

Unless R1 did something that got into F4's path and thus forced F4 to physically alter his fielding then it's nothing.

the problem is that different people see this play differently in their mind's eye, and that it's judgment, which is hard to describe.

If R1 *caused* F4 to stop, then it's (generally) INT. If r4 *chose* to stop, then it's (generally) play on.

This is false and may have put you at risk for a protest.