1st and 10?

nelson_28602

We had this play tonight and I would like your comments.
1st and 10 for A at B's 45. A runs the ball for a 5 yard gain to the 40 where after the ball is dead, both A and B committ personal fouls. B is assessed 15 yards, then A is assessed 15 yards to bring the ball back to the 40. The chains are reset at the 40, 1st and 10. My question is, "Why were the chains reset?" A did not reach the original line to gain, i. e. 35. Any thoughts or comments?
Thanks for any help.

OverAndBack

If B was assessed fifteen yards first (assuming B's foul occured first), that would have given A a first down, right? So assessing 15 yards on A still gives them a first down, but 15 yards back, right?

Is that the correct way to do that? That's the only thing I can think of without breaking out the rule book. Because it's late and I'm sore.

ljudge

You got it right. You administer the fouls in order of occurrence. The foul by B gives a first down for A (ie: a new series), then enforce the foul by A, then set the chains. That's correct.

OverAndBack

I'm catching on. Only a couple million years to go. 🙂

Jim S

This is a fairly recent (within the last 5 years) enforcement. Before that you would have enforced the B foul to the 30. Set the chains 1 & 10. Then enforce the A foul. Which would make it 1 & 25 from the 45.

JugglingReferee

Originally posted by nelson_28602
We had this play tonight and I would like your comments.
1st and 10 for A at B's 45. A runs the ball for a 5 yard gain to the 40 where after the ball is dead, both A and B committ personal fouls. B is assessed 15 yards, then A is assessed 15 yards to bring the ball back to the 40. The chains are reset at the 40, 1st and 10. My question is, "Why were the chains reset?" A did not reach the original line to gain, i. e. 35. Any thoughts or comments?
Thanks for any help.

These personal fouls offset - downs continue from the origial PBD. 2D/5 @ B-40.