Quote:
Originally Posted by bucky
Don't think so. Only Camron can truly tell us. Maybe deecee as that person disagreed with Camron. Possibly Rich who last questioned my use of "it". But not MD. Faith No More indeed.  |
I think you could justify it as either (personal or technical) because there was contact both before and after the ball became dead. Just because the whistle came after doesn't mean that the contact that triggered the call did. Or, perhaps the official saw the initial contact occurring before the ball became dead, was going to pass, but decided to call it after it escalated. He had a choice in determining what was the actual foul. In this case, I don't think he'd be wrong either way.