Yet another "Why I Hate Test Questions" post...

[PSidbury]

And, yes, I tried to search and find specifically what I am looking for, but to my avail could not.

"During a final free-throw attempt by A1, B2 commits basket interference. The goal will count and Team B will receive the ball out of bounds for a throw-in."
True or False ?

What gets me about this question is that within the '12-13 NFHS Basketball Rules Book: 10-4-9 outlines that a goal tend is a technical foul, but “basket interference” ???
No technical foul?
If so, then "true", the basket counts, and B receives the ball out of bounds for a throw-in.
I just don't see "free throw" and "basket interference" and technical foul" all within the same Rules Book article or reference this or that chapter and verse...

Thanks,
Paul

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by PSidbury

And, yes, I tried to search and find specifically what I am looking for, but to my avail could not.

"During a final free-throw attempt by A1, B2 commits basket interference. The goal will count and Team B will receive the ball out of bounds for a throw-in."
True or False ?

What gets me about this question is that within the '12-13 NFHS Basketball Rules Book: 10-4-9 outlines that a goal tend is a technical foul, but “basket interference” ???
No technical foul?
If so, then "true", the basket counts, and B receives the ball out of bounds for a throw-in.
I just don't see "free throw" and "basket interference" and technical foul" all within the same Rules Book article or reference this or that chapter and verse...

Thanks,
Paul

It's a fair question, imo, and you have identified what they are attempting to test.

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by PSidbury

The basket counts, and B receives the ball out of bounds for a throw-in.

... a "run the endline" throwin.

[tomegun]

I think they got you with "During a final free throw attempt...". It could easily happen and it different than goal tending a free throw.

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by PSidbury

And, yes, I tried to search and find specifically what I am looking for, but to my avail could not.

"During a final free-throw attempt by A1, B2 commits basket interference. The goal will count and Team B will receive the ball out of bounds for a throw-in."
True or False ?

What gets me about this question is that within the '12-13 NFHS Basketball Rules Book: 10-4-9 outlines that a goal tend is a technical foul, but “basket interference” ???
No technical foul?
If so, then "true", the basket counts, and B receives the ball out of bounds for a throw-in.
I just don't see "free throw" and "basket interference" and technical foul" all within the same Rules Book article or reference this or that chapter and verse...

Thanks,
Paul

Goaltending and Basket Interference are not the same thing. What would the answer be if B2 committed GT on the 2nd of 2 free throws? Once you answer that do you see anything in the rule book that says you should take the same action if B2 committed BI instead of GT.

Now ask yourself what would the answer be if B2 committed BI on the 1st free throw of a 1-and-1 situation. Would the answer be same as the test question's answer?

[BktBallRef]

Originally Posted by PSidbury

And, yes, I tried to search and find specifically what I am looking for, but to my avail could not.

"During a final free-throw attempt by A1, B2 commits basket interference. The goal will count and Team B will receive the ball out of bounds for a throw-in."
True or False ?

What gets me about this question is that within the '12-13 NFHS Basketball Rules Book: 10-4-9 outlines that a goal tend is a technical foul, but “basket interference” ???
No technical foul?
If so, then "true", the basket counts, and B receives the ball out of bounds for a throw-in.
I just don't see "free throw" and "basket interference" and technical foul" all within the same Rules Book article or reference this or that chapter and verse...

Thanks,
Paul

Paul, what would a player have to do to goaltend a FT? He would have to intentionally violate by going into the lane and intentionally bat the ball before it reached the rim. So it's an intentional act and is therefore considered unsporting. That's why it's a technical foul.

Now, A1 shoots a FT and B1 legally enters the lane and makes a legal attempt to get the rebound. Unfortunately, he touches the ball while it's in the cylinder. Not an unsporting act, just something that can happen in a game.

That's why GT is a T and BI is not.

The answer is True.

[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by BktBallRef

Paul, what would a player have to do to goaltend a FT? He would have to intentionally violate by going into the lane and intentionally bat the ball before it reached the rim. So it's an intentional act and is therefore considered unsporting. That's why it's a technical foul.

Now, A1 shoots a FT and B1 legally enters the lane and makes a legal attempt to get the rebound. Unfortunately, he touches the ball while it's in the cylinder. Not an unsporting act, just something that can happen in a game.

That's why GT is a T and BI is not.

The answer is True.

It wasn't long ago, under NFHS rules, that BI would have also been a T. Fortunately, they applied the logic which you described to come to a better and more appropriate result.

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by BktBallRef

Paul, what would a player have to do to goaltend a FT? He would have to intentionally violate by going into the lane and intentionally bat the ball before it reached the rim. So it's an intentional act and is therefore considered unsporting. That's why it's a technical foul.

Now, A1 shoots a FT and B1 legally enters the lane and makes a legal attempt to get the rebound. Unfortunately, he touches the ball while it's in the cylinder. Not an unsporting act, just something that can happen in a game.

That's why GT is a T and BI is not.

The answer is True.

All of that conjecture is nice, but it cannot be correct as until about 8 years ago both GT and BI during a free throw were technical fouls.
This is a test question for which it helps to be a veteran and recall that there was a rule change about this.

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

All of that conjecture is nice, but it cannot be correct as until about 8 years ago both GT and BI during a free throw were technical fouls.
This is a test question for which it helps to be a veteran and recall that there was a rule change about this.

And BBR's 'conjecture' cannot be the reason they changed the rule?

[PSidbury]

And here's another one...

"The official should hand or bounce the ball to the thrower for a throw-in unless the throw-in is from outside an end line following a successful goal or awarded goal."
True or False.

False.

SECTION 6 THROW-IN ADMINISTRATION
ART. 1 . . . The official shall hand or bounce the ball to the thrower for a throwin unless the throw-in is from outside an end line following a successful goal.

That's it. No mention of "awarded goal", and since a technical foul shot can be an awarded goal, as well a foul shot to end a period when time has expired... it still has to be false.

Thank you and good luck !

[APG]

Maybe I'm missing something obvious in your explanation but when they speak about an awarded goal, I imagine basket interference or goaltend. In that instance, we are to handle the ball which would make that statement false.

[PSidbury]

Someone please explain this one to me... it boggles my mind.

"The free throws must be attempted by A1 and B1 if they foul each other simultaneously after the tossed ball leaves the referee's hand on a jump ball."
True or False?

Huh?
Are A1 and B1 the jumpers?
Double any foul is POI...

And that's where I stopped thinking about it, checked "false" and moved on.

Good night and good luck !

[APG]

It doesn't matter if A1 and B1 are the jumpers, but yes, they're more than likely the jumpers in this play.

To answer your question: Are free throws ever shot as a result of a double foul?

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by PSidbury

Someone please explain this one to me... it boggles my mind.

"The free throws must be attempted by A1 and B1 if they foul each other simultaneously after the tossed ball leaves the referee's hand on a jump ball."
True or False?

Huh?
Are A1 and B1 the jumpers?
Double any foul is POI...

And that's where I stopped thinking about it, checked "false" and moved on.

Good night and good luck !

It seems that you have some kind of refresher test made up of old questions.
Obviously, under the current rules there are no free throws for a double foul. However, my guess is that by including the phrase "after the tossed ball leaves the referee's hand on a jump ball" the test writer wants the reader to recognize that these are personal fouls and thus any FTs must be attempted by the offended players. So I would answer true.
Poor question though as there won't be any FTs.

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

And BBR's 'conjecture' cannot be the reason they changed the rule?

It could be under the present set-up of the game, but remember that this could go back to when the lane was only six feet wide. Under that court situation, a player along the lane did not have to violate in order to GT a FT.