Verbal Interference

[greymule]

Anybody just see A-Rod just commit (nonexistent) verbal interference in the Yankees–Blue Jays game? Almost started a fight.

[ozzy6900]

First off, this is "big boy ball" not HS or LL. If "" said something to the defense (and they were dumb enough to pay attention), too bad! If "" were to come to bat again, he'd get one in his ear! It's bush-league but it's still tough ka-ka!

But in FED, this is a no-no and I believe in "small ball " too!

[tibear]

Technically this is not allowed in any game, including MLB.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by tibear

Technically this is not allowed in any game, including MLB.

OBR reference please?

[tibear]

Depends on your interpretation of "interfere or hinder".

I've never called verbal interference but have seen others call it. One I can think of a first baseman catching a fly ball in foul territory about two feet off first base. R1 screamed just as F3 was about to make the catch and as a result dropped the ball. The umpire called the batter out.

Not sure if the umpire even made the right out call in this situation but that was the call that was made.

[Jerry]

I have no idea what A-Rod said or did, but in all rules (FED, NCAA and OBR) there's no distinction or seperate definition of "verbal" interference. OBR 2.00 defines offensive interference as " an act by the team at bat which interferes with, obstructs, impedes, hinders or confuses any fielder attempting to make a play." Obviously, an "act" can be verbal or non-verbal.

Jerry

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by Jerry

I have no idea what A-Rod said or did, but in all rules (FED, NCAA and OBR) there's no distinction or seperate definition of "verbal" interference. OBR 2.00 defines offensive interference as " an act by the team at bat which interferes with, obstructs, impedes, hinders or confuses any fielder attempting to make a play." Obviously, an "act" can be verbal or non-verbal.

Jerry

FED explicitly includes verbal obstruction (2-22-1) as a distinct component of the definition of obstruction.

OBR does not mention verbal obstruction, and standard pro interps (J/R, MLBUM, etc.) reject verbal obstruction in most cases.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by tibear

Depends on your interpretation of "interfere or hinder".

I've never called verbal interference but have seen others call it. One I can think of a first baseman catching a fly ball in foul territory about two feet off first base. R1 screamed just as F3 was about to make the catch and as a result dropped the ball. The umpire called the batter out.

Not sure if the umpire even made the right out call in this situation but that was the call that was made.

It does indeed depend on the interpretation, which is why it's important to learn the correct one.

As for screaming at a fielder, I think my ruling would depend more on the level of ball than on the interpretation of 'interference'.

[Jerry]

. . . and standard pro interps (J/R, MLBUM, etc.) reject verbal obstruction in most cases.


MB,
They (the umpires) must not have in this instance! On the other hand, as someone pointed out, this is MLB. Any relationship to real baseball is purely coincidental.
Jerry

[greymule]

Here's the link to the article. Apparently A-Rod yelled, "Ha!" as he ran behind the fielder.

http://www.nytimes.com/2007/05/31/sp...ts&oref=slogin

It's definitely verbal interference in Fed and other youth ball. But regardless of how the OBR book reads, verbal interference is not called in professional baseball. It's like the play where the runner from 2B stands in front of the ground ball to block F6's vision and then gets out of the way at the last moment. Call interference at every level except professional.

Incidentally, the announcers were soon talking about how smart a play it is for the runner, on a popup, to pass close behind the fielder and make loud footsteps.

For people who don't link to the article: the umpires did not call interference, and the Blue Jays don't claim they should have. The Jays are simply incensed at what they perceive to be a bush league action by A-Rod.

[mcrowder]

Originally Posted by Jerry

. . . and standard pro interps (J/R, MLBUM, etc.) reject verbal obstruction in most cases.


MB,
They (the umpires) must not have in this instance! On the other hand, as someone pointed out, this is MLB. Any relationship to real baseball is purely coincidental.
Jerry

What do you mean? They did, as they are supposed to, reject verbal interference ("verbal obstruction" is a new one though).

[greymule]

"verbal obstruction"

Example:

Abel on 1B. Baker gets a hit to right. As Abel approaches 3B, F5 yells, "There's a snake under third base!" Baker reverses direction and returns to 2B.

I can't say I've ever seen VO called, though.

(N.B.: There is disagreement among clinicians over whether F5's comment would qualify as VO if there actually was a snake under third base.)

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by mcrowder

What do you mean? They did, as they are supposed to, reject verbal interference ("verbal obstruction" is a new one though).

Verbal Obstruction:

FED Play 1 - Official Interp 3/99: When a defensive player lies and tells a runner that a passed ball was a foul ball, the fielder is guilty of verbal obstruction. - Rumble interpretation.

FED Play 2 - Official Interp 2001: Any verbal decoy, such as "I've got it,"
is obstruction. - Hopkins interpretation.

FED Play 3 - Official Interp 3/99: As the catcher throws a "pop fly" to F4 with a runner stealing, if a team member bangs bats together to simulate the sound of the batted ball, the umpire calls obstruction and ejects the offender.

In OBR there is no such thing as verbal interference or obstruction (actually points not covered). A runner is simply referred to as "gullible" for not knowing the difference between his opponent and his coach. Carl Childress said that Bruce Froemming would penalize a runner for yelling "drop it" to a fielder under 9.01(c).

[Jerry]

This posting is getting absolutely ridiculous. What if, spectators that were given "Thunder Sticks", banged them together at the exact moment. The umpire, thinking it was someone in the bench that smacked two bats together, calls "Verbal Obstruction"!!!! vehemently, at that. (I can picture some FED umpire doing that, by the way).

Has anyone actually asked MLB why A-Rod was called on it? And what the ruling was? Oh, yeh. 9.01(c) will certainly cover it.

Jerry

Originally Posted by greymule

"verbal obstruction"

Example:

Abel on 1B. Baker gets a hit to right. As Abel approaches 3B, F5 yells, "There's a snake under third base!" Baker reverses direction and returns to 2B.

I can't say I've ever seen VO called, though.

(N.B.: There is disagreement among clinicians over whether F5's comment would qualify as VO if there actually was a snake under third base.)

If there was a snake under 3b, how would F5 know it?